1.Meaning of unpaid seller is
(Business Law)
1. The person who has not paid the price
2. The person who has sold the goods and received the price
3. The person who has sold the goods and has not yet received the price
4. The person who has not sold the goods
Q1. अवैतनिक विक्रेता का अर्थ है
1. वह व्यक्ति जिसने कीमत नहीं चुकाई है
2. वह व्यक्ति जिसने माल बेचा है और कीमत प्राप्त की है
3. वह व्यक्ति जिसने माल बेचा है और अभी तक कीमत प्राप्त नहीं की है
4. वह व्यक्ति जिसने माल नहीं बेचा है
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The seller of goods is deemed to be an “unpaid seller” within the meaning of this Act a) When the whole of the price has not been paid or tendered; b) When a bill of exchange or other negotiable instrument has been received as conditional payment and the condition on which it was received has not been fulfilled by reason of the dishonour of the instrument or otherwise. ©navclasses
2. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is an example of
(Marketing)
1. Sustainable marketing
2. Social marketing
3. Services marketing
4. Relationship marketing
Q2. स्वच्छ भारत अभियान (विपणन) का एक उदाहरण है
1. सतत विपणन
2. सामाजिक विपणन
3. सेवा विपणन
4. रिलेशनशिप मार्केटिंग
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The campaign aims to achieve the vision of a ‘Clean India’ by 2nd October 2019. The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is the most significant cleanliness campaign by the Government of India. ©navclasses
3.Which type of studies would be most appropriate to use in order to measure changed opinions of consumers repeatedly?
(Marketing)
1. Focus group studies
2. Shadowing studies
3. Longitudinal studies
4. Experimental studies
Q3.परिवर्तित मापन के लिए किस प्रकार के अध्ययन का उपयोग करना सबसे उपयुक्त होगा उपभोक्ताओं की राय बार-बार?
(विपणन)
1. फोकस समूह अध्ययन
2. छायांकन अध्ययन
3. अनुदैर्ध्य अध्ययन
4. प्रायोगिक अध्ययन
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: A longitudinal study is a sort of correlational research that examines variables over time. This study could take weeks, months, or even years to complete. Longitudinal research might last for decades in some circumstances. ©navclasses
4. Which type of retailers involve in comparatively low prices as a major selling point combined with the reduced costs of doing business?
(Marketing)
1. Convenience stores 2. Discount retailers 3. Limited line retailers 4. Category killer stores Q4. किस प्रकार के खुदरा विक्रेता तुलनात्मक रूप से कम कीमतों को एक प्रमुख विक्रय बिंदु के रूप में शामिल करते हैं व्यापार करने की कम लागत के साथ संयुक्त?
(विपणन)
1. सुविधा भंडार
2. डिस्काउंट रिटेलर्स
3. सीमित लाइन खुदरा विक्रेता
4. श्रेणी हत्यारा स्टोर
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Discount retailers involve comparatively low prices as a major selling point combined with the reduced costs of doing business. ©navclasses
5. Tele – Marketing is a part of
(Marketing)
1. Viral marketing
2. Social marketing
3. Direct marketing
4. Relationship marketing
Q5. टेली – मार्केटिंग (विपणन) का एक हिस्सा है
1. वायरल मार्केटिंग
2. सामाजिक विपणन
3. प्रत्यक्ष विपणन
4. रिलेशनशिप मार्केटिंग
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The direct selling of products or services to potential buyers over the phone or the Internet is known as telemarketing. Outbound calls, inbound calls, lead generation, and sales calls are the four most popular types of telemarketing. ©navclasses
6. After concept testing. a firm would engage in which of the following stage in developing and marketing a new product?(Marketing)
(Marketing)
1. Test marketing
2. Marketing strategy development
3. Business analysis
4. Product development
Q6. अवधारणा परीक्षण के बाद। एक फर्म निम्नलिखित में से किस चरण में विकास में संलग्न होगी और एक नए उत्पाद का विपणन?
(विपणन)
1. टेस्ट मार्केटिंग
2. विपणन रणनीति विकास
3. व्यापार विश्लेषण
4. उत्पाद विकास
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The eight stages or process or steps involved in the development of a new product are listed and also hyper-linked as follows:
Idea generation.
Idea screening.
Concept testing.
Business analysis.
Product development.
Test marketing.
Commercialisation.
Review of market performance.
©navclasses
7. A marketer needs to be aware of the criteria by which the effectiveness of their segmentation procedures can be assessed. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for evaluating the resulting market segments?
(Marketing)
1. Perishability
2. Size of the resulting segment
3. Measurability
4. Accessibility
7. एक बाज़ारिया को उन मानदंडों के बारे में पता होना चाहिए जिनके द्वारा उनकी विभाजन प्रक्रियाओं की प्रभावशीलता का आकलन किया जा सकता है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन परिणामी बाजार खंडों के मूल्यांकन के लिए एक मानदंड नहीं है?
(विपणन)
1. खराब होने की क्षमता
2. परिणामी खंड का आकार
3. मापनीयता
4. अभिगम्यता
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Perishability is NOT a criterion for evaluating the resulting market segments. Perishability is a marketing term that describes how service capacity cannot be saved for future sale. It is a crucial principle in the marketing of services. Intangibility, inseparability, and variability are other important characteristics of services. ©navclasses
8. “Skimming” in e—banking refers to
(Marketing)
1. Identifying fraudsters copying vital information from credit cards
2. Multiple transactions by one credit card
3. Conversion of a debit card into credit card
4. Excessive charge for online services
8. ई-बैंकिंग में “स्किमिंग” (विपणन) को संदर्भित करता है
1. क्रेडिट कार्ड से महत्वपूर्ण जानकारी की नकल करने वाले धोखेबाजों की पहचान करना
2. एक क्रेडिट कार्ड द्वारा एकाधिक लेनदेन
3. डेबिट कार्ड का क्रेडिट कार्ड में परिवर्तन
4. ऑनलाइन सेवाओं के लिए अत्यधिक शुल्क
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Skimming in e-banking refers to stealing of information through magnetic strip present on the cards like ATMs, Debit card and credit cards. ©navclasses
9. Belated return u/s 139(4) can be filled at any time
(Income Tax)
1. Before the expiry of relevant assessment year
2. Before the expiry of one year from relevant assessment year
3. Before the expiry of relevant assessment year or before the assessment is complete. whichever is earlier
4. Before the expiry of one year from the end of the relevant assessment year or before the assessment year, whichever is earlier
9. धारा 139(4) के तहत विलम्बित रिटर्न किसी भी समय (आयकर) भरा जा सकता है
1. प्रासंगिक निर्धारण वर्ष की समाप्ति से पहले
2. प्रासंगिक निर्धारण वर्ष से एक वर्ष की समाप्ति से पहले
3. प्रासंगिक निर्धारण वर्ष की समाप्ति से पहले या मूल्यांकन पूरा होने से पहले।
इनमें से जो भी पहले हो
4. प्रासंगिक निर्धारण वर्ष के अंत से या उससे पहले एक वर्ष की समाप्ति से पहले निर्धारण वर्ष, जो भी पहले हो
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Section 139(1) of the Income Tax Act (hereinafter referred to as the “Act”) specifies the deadline for filing an income tax return. The due dates for filing returns for the Assessment Year 2019-20 were July 31, 2019 and September 30, 2019 for various types of assesses, according to this section. ©navclasses
10. Tax audit is compulsory in case of a person is carrying on business whose gross turnover exceeds
(Auditing)
1. Rs. 60 Lakhs
2. Rs. 1Crore
3. Rs.40 Lakhs
4. Rs.2 Crore
10. ऐसे व्यक्ति के मामले में टैक्स ऑडिट अनिवार्य है जो व्यवसाय कर रहा है जिसका सकल कारोबार से अधिक
(लेखापरीक्षा)
1. रु. 60 लाख
2. रु. 1 करोर
3. रु.40 लाख
4. रु.2 करोड़
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Tax audit is the official examination or audit of the tax department to the tax return that declares by taxpayers as required by law. ©navclasses
11. Mr.X is entitled to a transport allowance of Rs.1.800 pm. for commuting from his residence to office and back and he spends Rs.1,400 pm. The exemption shall be allowed of
(Income Tax)
1. Rs.1,800 pm.
2. Rs.1.400 pm.
3. Rs.1.600 pm.
4. Nil
11. मिस्टर एक्स 1.800 रुपये प्रति माह के परिवहन भत्ते के हकदार हैं। अपने आवास से कार्यालय और वापस आने के लिए और वह 1,400 रुपये खर्च करता है। छूट की अनुमति दी जाएगी
(लेखापरीक्षा)
1. 1800 रुपये प्रति माह।
2. रु. 1.400 प्रति माह।
3. रु. 1.600 प्रति माह।
4. नील
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The Transport Allowance, or TA, is a monetary benefit given to salaried employees to offset the cost of commuting to and from work during their working hours. It might be a set sum or it can vary depending on the actual cost spent, whichever is cheaper. Under the Income Tax Act of 1961, it is a tax deductible advantage.
If you work in the transportation industry, any personal expenses you incur will be reimbursed.
©navclasses
12. Beliefs, attitudes, traditions and expectations which are shared by group members is called
(Organisation Behaviour)
1. Group norms
2. Group communication
3. Group cohesiveness
4. Group structure
12. विश्वास, दृष्टिकोण, परंपराएं और अपेक्षाएं जो समूह के सदस्यों द्वारा साझा की जाती हैं: बुलाया
(संगठन व्यवहार)
1. समूह मानदंड
2. समूह संचार
3. समूह सामंजस्य
4. समूह संरचना
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Group norms are unwritten rules of behaviour and a code of conduct that give group activities and operations some structure and consistency. Both members of the community are required to obey these guidelines. These norms and rules typically emerge progressively and informally as members of the group learn what habits are required for the group to work properly. ©navclasses
13. Which of the following method of training is NOT a part of the off – the job training method?
(Human Resource Management)
1. Sensitivity training
2. Transactional analysis
3. Apprenticeship
4. Conference method
13. प्रशिक्षण की निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी विधि ऑफ-द जॉब ट्रेनिंग का हिस्सा नहीं है? तरीका?
(मानव संसाधन प्रबंधन)
1. संवेदनशीलता प्रशिक्षण
2. लेन-देन संबंधी विश्लेषण
3. शिक्षुता
4. सम्मेलन विधि
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: A virtual organisation is a set of geographically distributed individuals, associations, organisational units, or entire organisations that rely on electronic linking to complete the production process (working definition).
The Task Force is a sort of temporary group in which people from various disciplines come together to complete a particular task or project.
A pure autocratic structure is a free type of organisation. It knows no bounds. It is adaptable and scalable, and it is designed around specific problems that must be addressed by a group of experts with a variety of technical skills. These experts are in charge of making decisions and have other responsibilities.
Matrix organisation is described as the imposition of a project structure over the organization’s permanent functional structure, with project team members reporting to a dual line of command (that of the project manager and the concerned functional specialist whose department they originally belonged to), resulting in a matrix or grid. As a result, it’s known as a matrix organisation.
©navclasses
14. In a moderately skewed distribution, which of following equation indicates the relationship among mean, median and mode?
(Statistics)
1. Mean = 2 Mode – 3 Median
2. Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
3. Median = 3 Mean – 2 Mode
4. Mode = 3 Mean – 2 Median
14. मध्यम रूप से विषम वितरण में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा समीकरण इंगित करता है माध्य, माध्यिका और बहुलक के बीच संबंध?
(सांख्यिकी)
1. माध्य = 2 बहुलक – 3 माध्यिका
2. बहुलक = 3 माध्यिका – 2 माध्य
3. माध्यिका = 3 माध्य – 2 बहुलक
4. बहुलक = 3 माध्य – 2 माध्यिका
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The Mean, Median, and Mode: An Empirical Relationship The gap between the mean and mode in a moderately skewed distribution is about three times the difference between the mean and median. As a result, the empirical mean median mode relation is: (Mean – Median) = 3 (Mean – Mode). ©navclasses
15. If on an average, 2 customers arrive at shopping mall per minute. what is the probability that in a given minute, exactly 3 customers will arrive e^(-2): 0.1353 ?
(Statistics)
1. 0.1804
2. 0.3532
3. 0.2352
4. 0.1404
15. यदि शॉपिंग मॉल में प्रति मिनट औसतन 2 ग्राहक आते हैं। संभावना क्या है कि एक मिनट में ठीक 3 ग्राहक आएंगे? (e (power) -2: 0.1353)
(सांख्यिकी)
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: 2^3 * e^(-2) 3!
8 x 0.1353 = 0.1804 3x 2
©navclasses
16. Goodness of fit of a distribution is tested by
(Statistics)
1. t – test
2. F – test
3. Chi – square test
4. Z – test
16. वितरण के फिट होने की अच्छाई का परीक्षण (सांख्यिकी) द्वारा किया जाता है
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The chi-square test is the most often used goodness-of-fit test for discrete distributions. The chi-square test is only used for data that has been divided into categories (bins), and it requires a large sample size to generate appropriate findings. ©navclasses
17. In a survey people are choosen from class friends or neighbours for the purpose of knowing their preference for a certain brand of soft drink is an example of
(Statistics)
1. Convenience sampling
2. Judgement sampling
3. Cluster sampling
4. Stratified sampling
17. एक सर्वेक्षण में लोगों को के उद्देश्य के लिए कक्षा के दोस्तों या पड़ोसियों में से चुना जाता है एक निश्चित ब्रांड के शीतल पेय के लिए उनकी वरीयता जानना (सांख्यिकी) का एक उदाहरण है
1. सुविधा नमूनाकरण
2. निर्णय नमूनाकरण
3. क्लस्टर नमूनाकरण
4. स्तरीकृत नमूनाकरण
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Convenience sampling is a sort of non-probability sampling in which a sample is taken from a population segment that is near at hand. For pilot testing, this form of sampling is ideal. ©navclasses
18. The following information is available for Ravi corporation
EPS – Rs 4
ROI – 18%
Rate of return required by shareholders – 15%
(Financial Management)
What will the price per share as per Walter model if the payout ratio is 40%?
1. Rs. 29.87
2. Rs. 29.33
3. Rs. 28.80
4. Rs. 30.63
18. रवि निगम के लिए निम्नलिखित जानकारी उपलब्ध है
ईपीएस – 4 रुपये
आरओआई – 18%
शेयरधारकों द्वारा अपेक्षित रिटर्न की दर – 15% (वित्तीय प्रबंधन)
यदि भुगतान अनुपात 40% है तो वाल्टर मॉडल के अनुसार प्रति शेयर मूल्य क्या होगा?
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Walter’s model on dividend policy believes in the relevance concept of a dividend. According to this concept, a dividend decision of the company affects its valuation. ©navclasses
19. Suppose that a firm has 20% debts and 80% equity in its capital structure. The cost of debts and cost of equity are assumed to be 10%and 15% respectively. What is the overall cost of capital?
(Financial Management)
1. 11%
2. 12%
3. 13%
4. 14%
19. मान लीजिए कि एक फर्म की पूंजी संरचना में 20% ऋण और 80% इक्विटी है। ऋण की लागत और इक्विटी की लागत को क्रमशः 10% और 15% माना जाता है। पूंजी की कुल लागत क्या है?
(वित्तीय प्रबंधन)
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: To determine the total cost of capital
Each sort of capital expense is weighted according to its proportion of total capital.
WACC= (10*0.20)+ (15*0.80)
= 2+12
equals 14%
©navclasses
A Ltd. has a share capital of 5,000 equity shares of Rs.100 each having a market value of Rs. 150 per share. The company wants to raise additional funds of Rs.1,20,000 and offers to the existing shareholders the right to apply for a new share at Rs. 120 for every five share held. What would be the value of right?
(Financial Management)
1. Rs. 5
2. Rs. 6
3.Rs.6.5
4. Rs.5.5
20.ए लिमिटेड के पास 100 रुपये के 5,000 इक्विटी शेयरों की शेयर पूंजी है, जिसका बाजार मूल्य है रु. 150 प्रति शेयर। कंपनी 1,20,000 रुपये का अतिरिक्त फंड जुटाना चाहती है और ऑफर करती है मौजूदा शेयरधारकों को रुपये में एक नए शेयर के लिए आवेदन करने का अधिकार। हर पांच के लिए 120 शेयर धारित। अधिकार का मूल्य क्या होगा?
(वित्तीय प्रबंधन)
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: For calculation:
Market Value of existing holdings (5)= Rs. 150*5= Rs. 75
Issue Price of new holding (1)= Rs. 120*1= Rs. 120
Total Value = (750+120)= Rs.870
Total Share Holdings=(5+1)=6
Value of each share = Rs. 870/6= Rs. 145
Value of right= Market Value- Average Value
= 150-145= Rs. 5
©navclasses
21. Which one of the following is the most pervasive and sustaining objectives of financial decision making?
(Financial Management)
1. Profit maximization
2. Earnings maximization
3. Value maximization
4. Cost minimization
21. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा वित्तीय का सबसे व्यापक और स्थायी उद्देश्य है? निर्णय लेना?
(वित्तीय प्रबंधन)
1. लाभ अधिकतमकरण
2. कमाई को अधिकतम करना
3. मूल्य अधिकतमकरण
4. लागत न्यूनीकरण
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The maximisation of a company’s worth entails the maximisation of its shareholders’ wealth. As a result, this approach is sometimes referred to as the “shareholder wealth maximisation model. ©navclasses
22.Political risk management comes in the ambit of which of the following financial decisions?
(Financial Management)
1. Non – conventional capital budgeting
2. International currency arbitrage
3. Foreign exchange market
4. Multinational capital budgeting
22. राजनीतिक जोखिम प्रबंधन निम्नलिखित में से किस वित्तीय के दायरे में आता है? निर्णय?
(वित्तीय प्रबंधन)
1. गैर-पारंपरिक पूंजी बजटिंग
2. अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मुद्रा अंतरपणन
3. विदेशी मुद्रा बाजार
4. बहुराष्ट्रीय पूंजी बजटिंग
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The most common form of capital budgeting entails calculating the current value of the project’s potential cash flows and subtracting the original outlay needed for the project to arrive at the project’s net present value. A similar method is usually used in multinational capital budgeting. ©navclasses
23.A company purchased machinery on 01-01—2015 for a sum of Rs.60,000. The retail price index on that date was 150. What is the value of machinery according to CPP method on 31St December 2015, When the price index was 200.
(Statistics)
1. Rs. 1,00000
2. Rs. 90,000
3. Rs. 80,000
4. Rs. 70,000
23.एक कंपनी ने 01-01-2015 को 60,000 रुपये की राशि में मशीनरी खरीदी। उस तारीख को खुदरा मूल्य सूचकांक १५० था। ३१ दिसंबर २०१५ को सीपीपी पद्धति के अनुसार मशीनरी का मूल्य क्या है, जब मूल्य सूचकांक २०० था।
1. रु. 1,00000
2. रु. 90,000
3. रु. 80,000
4. रु. ७०,०००
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: 60000 x 200/150 ©navclasses
24. X and Y are partners in a business sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3:2. They admit Z as a new partner with 1/5 share in the profits. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio of the partners.
(Accounts)
1. 12:8:5
2. 12:8:6
3. 12:7:6
4. 12:3:27
24. X और Y एक व्यवसाय में साझेदार हैं जो 3:2 के अनुपात में लाभ और हानि साझा करते हैं। वे मानते हैं Z को लाभ में 1/5 हिस्से के साथ एक नए भागीदार के रूप में। के नए लाभ बंटवारे अनुपात की गणना करें भागीदारों।
(हिसाब किताब)
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Z admitted for 1/5th share
Remaining Share: 1- ⅕
= ⅘
A’s new ratio: ⅗*⅘ = 12/25
B’s new ratio: ⅖*⅘= 8/25
A:B:C = 12/25: 8/25: ⅕ = 12:8:5
©navclasses
25. If the Activity Ratio of a firm is 80% and capacity ratio is 120%. find out its efficiency ratio.
(Accounts)
1. 150%
2. 100%
3. 80%
4. 66.67%
25. यदि एक फर्म का गतिविधि अनुपात 80% है और क्षमता अनुपात 120% है। इसका दक्षता अनुपात ज्ञात कीजिए।
(हिसाब किताब)
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Efficiency Ratio = Activity Ratio/Capacity Ratio
Efficiency Ratio = .80/1.20 = 66.67%
©navclasses
26. When current ratio is 2:1 and if equal increase in current assets and current liabilities would result in
(Accounts)
1. No change in current ratio
2. Increase in current ratio
3. Decrease in current ratio
4. Current ratio will double
26. जब चालू अनुपात 2:1 है और यदि चालू संपत्ति और चालू देनदारियों में समान वृद्धि होती है परिणाम होगा
(लेखा)
1. वर्तमान अनुपात में कोई परिवर्तन नहीं
2. वर्तमान अनुपात में वृद्धि
3. वर्तमान अनुपात में कमी
4. वर्तमान अनुपात दोगुना हो जाएगा
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The current ratio is a liquidity ratio that assesses a company’s willingness to pay short-term or one-year commitments. It explains to investors and analysts how a firm can use existing assets on its balance sheet to pay down current debt and other obligations. ©navclasses
27. Which one of the following is a correct equation?
(Accounts)
1. Opening capital = Closing capital + Additional capital — Drawings – Profit
2. Opening capital = Closing capital + Drawings – Additional capital – Losses
3. Opening capital = Closing capital + Drawings – Additional capital – Profit
4. Opening capital = Closing capital – Drawings – Additional capital – Profit
27. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक सही समीकरण है?
(हिसाब किताब) 1. प्रारंभिक पूंजी = समापन पूंजी – अतिरिक्त पूंजी – आहरण – लाभ
2. प्रारंभिक पूंजी = समापन पूंजी – आहरण – अतिरिक्त पूंजी – हानियां
3. प्रारंभिक पूंजी = समापन पूंजी ~ चित्र – अतिरिक्त पूंजी – लाभ
4. प्रारंभिक पूंजी = समापन पूंजी – आहरण – अतिरिक्त पूंजी – लाभ
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Opening Capital = Closing Capital +Drawings-Additional Capital – Profit. ©navclasses
28. In penetration pricing a business firm seeks to access deeper market penetration by keeping prices
(Marketing)
1. Higher
2. Competitive
3. Low
4. Flexible
28. पैठ मूल्य निर्धारण में एक व्यावसायिक फर्म किसके द्वारा बाजार में गहरी पैठ बनाना चाहती है? कीमतें रखना
(विपणन)
1. उच्चतर
2. प्रतिस्पर्धी
3. कम
4. लचीला
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Businesses use penetration pricing to attract customers to a new product or service by first offering a cheaper price. A reduced price assists a new product or service in breaking into the market and luring customers away from competitors. ©navclasses
29. Sub – optimal allocation of resources under monopoly to cause social welfare loss is often inferred as
(Economics)
1. Deadweight loss
2. Allocation drift
3. Monopoly loss
4. Opportunity loss
29. सामाजिक कल्याण के नुकसान के लिए एकाधिकार के तहत संसाधनों का उप-इष्टतम आवंटन अक्सर (अर्थशास्त्र) के रूप में अनुमान लगाया जाता है
1. डेडवेट लॉस
2. आवंटन बहाव
3. एकाधिकार हानि
4. अवसर हानि
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: A deadweight loss is a societal expense incurred as a result of market inefficiency, which happens when supply and demand are out of balance. Deadweight loss is primarily used in finance, although it may be applicable to any deficit created by inadequate resource distribution. ©navclasses
30. Which of the following are the first order conditions to profit maximisation?
(Economics)
1. TR – TC
2. MR = MC
3. MR cuts MC from below
4. Slope of MC curve must be higher than that of MR curve
30. लाभ को अधिकतम करने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी पहली आदेश शर्तें हैं?
(अर्थशास्त्र)
1. टीआर – टीसी
2. एमआर = एमसी
3. MR ने MC को नीचे से काट दिया
4. एमसी वक्र की ढलान एमआर वक्र की तुलना में अधिक होनी चाहिए
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: When the derivative of the profit function with respect to an input is zero, profit maximisation occurs. A first-order condition is the name for this property. When the value of the marginal output is equal to the cost of the production, profit maximisation occurs. ©navclasses
31. A price ceiling below the equilibrium price often leads to ————
(Economics)
1. Commodity glut
2. Tax burden on consumer
3. Shortage of the commodity and black marketing
4. Export of commodity
31. संतुलन कीमत के नीचे मूल्य सीमा अक्सर ————- की ओर ले जाती है
(अर्थशास्त्र)
1. कमोडिटी ग्लूट
2. उपभोक्ता पर कर का बोझ
3. वस्तु की कमी और कालाबाजारी
4. वस्तु का निर्यात
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: A price limit (below the equilibrium price) causes the quantity demanded to increase while the quantity supplied decreases. This is why a price cap causes scarcity. ©navclasses
32. For a decline in price. Total Revenue (TR) increases if demand is —–———
(Economics)
1. Elastic
2. Inelastic
3. Unitary elastic
4. Zero elastic
32. कीमत में गिरावट के लिए। कुल राजस्व (TR) बढ़ता है यदि मांग ———– है
(अर्थशास्त्र)
1. लोचदार
2. बेलोचदार
3. एकात्मक लोचदार
4. शून्य लोचदार
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The total revenue test is a method of deciding whether demand is elastic or inelastic in economics. When a price rise results in an increase in overall sales, demand is assumed to be inelastic, since the price increase has no effect on the quantity requested. ©navclasses
33.When consumers seeks to be different and exclusive by demanding less of a commodity as more people consume it. This phenomenon is known as
(Economics)
1. Bandwagon effect
2. Snob effect
3. Substitution effect
4. Price effect
33. जब उपभोक्ता किसी वस्तु की कम मांग करके अलग और अनन्य होना चाहता है जितना अधिक लोग इसका सेवन करते हैं। इस घटना के रूप में जाना जाता है
(अर्थशास्त्र)
1. बैंडबाजे प्रभाव
2. स्नोब प्रभाव
3. प्रतिस्थापन प्रभाव
4. मूल्य प्रभाव
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The snob effect is a microeconomic process in which the demand for a particular product by people with higher income levels is inversely linked to demand by people with lower income levels. The theoretical value of these commodities is typically high, but the functional value is minimal. ©navclasses
34. Which of the following policy has lost its sheen consequent to implementation of the GST Laws in India?
(Economics)
1. Monetary policy
2. Fiscal policy
3. Tracie policy
4. Exim policy
34. निम्नलिखित में से किस नीति के कार्यान्वयन के परिणामस्वरूप अपनी चमक खो गई है भारत में जीएसटी कानून?
(अर्थशास्त्र)
1. एल-मौद्रिक नीति
2. राजकोषीय नीति
3. ट्रेसी नीति
4. एक्जिम पॉलिसी
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The Goods and Services Tax, or GST, was implemented in July 2017 and is a massive tax overhaul in India’s economy. In the corporate world, it has offered transparency and simplicity. In India, fiscal policy is the guiding force that assists the government in determining how much money it should spend to promote economic activity and how much revenue it must generate from the system in order to keep the economy functioning smoothly. Fiscal policy has become increasingly important in recent years in order to achieve rapid economic growth in India and around the world. ©navclasses
35. Reverse Repo Rate is a tool used by the Reserve Bank of India primarily to _ _ _ _ _ _ _
(Economics)
1. lnject liquidity
2. Absorb liquidity
3. Protect bank credit
4. Build reserve
35. रिवर्स रेपो रेट भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक द्वारा मुख्य रूप से _ _ _ _ _ _ _ के लिए उपयोग किया जाने वाला एक उपकरण है।
(अर्थशास्त्र)
1. तरलता इंजेक्ट करें
2. तरलता को अवशोषित करें
3. बैंक क्रेडिट को सुरक्षित रखें
4. रिजर्व बनाएं
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: If the reverse repo rate rises, the money supply falls, and vice versa, assuming all other variables remain constant. If the reverse repo rate rises, commercial banks will be more enticed to park their funds with the RBI, reducing the amount of money available in the market. ©navclasses
36. A multinational firm is the one which ——–———–
(International Relations)
1. Source supplies from multiple countries
2. Exports production to multiple countries
3. Control and operates production facilities in multiple countries
4. Has consular access in multiple countries
36. एक बहुराष्ट्रीय फर्म वह है जो ———————-
(अंतर्राष्ट्रीय संबंध)
1. कई देशों से स्रोत आपूर्ति
2. कई देशों को उत्पादन निर्यात करता है
3. कई देशों में उत्पादन सुविधाओं को नियंत्रित और संचालित करता है
4. कई देशों में कांसुलर एक्सेस है
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: A global corporation is one that owns and runs manufacturing plants in several countries. A multinational corporation (MNC) or multinational enterprise (MNE) is a company that is registered in many countries and operates in multiple countries. ©navclasses
37. Grouping of countries committed to remove all barriers to the free flow of goods and services between themselves and also pursue independent external trade policies is called
(International Relations)
1. Free trade area
2. Custom union
3. Common market
4. Economic union
37. आपस में वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के मुक्त प्रवाह के लिए सभी बाधाओं को दूर करने और स्वतंत्र बाहरी व्यापार नीतियों को आगे बढ़ाने के लिए प्रतिबद्ध देशों के समूह को (अंतर्राष्ट्रीय संबंध) कहा जाता है।
1. मुक्त व्यापार क्षेत्र
2. कस्टम यूनियन
3. आम बाजार
4. आर्थिक संघ
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: A free-trade area is a geographical area that encompasses a trade bloc whose members have signed a free-trade agreement. Such agreements entail collaboration between at least two countries in order to lower trade obstacles, import quotas, and tariffs, as well as boost cross-border commerce of goods and services. ©navclasses
38. Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) protect the use of information and ideas that are of
(Business Law)
1. Social value
2. Moral value
3. Commercial value
4. Ethical value
38. बौद्धिक संपदा अधिकार (आईपीआर) सूचना और विचारों के उपयोग की रक्षा करते हैं जो (व्यावसायिक कानून) के हैं
1. सामाजिक मूल्य
2. नैतिक मूल्य
3. वाणिज्यिक मूल्य
4. नैतिक मूल्य
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: the legal right to protect your intellectual property, including innovations, artistic and literary works, designs and symbols, and trade names and pictures of commercial use. ©navclasses
39. Uppasala model for internationalisation of business operations is not valid for
(International Business)
1. manufacturing organisations
2. Services organisations
3. Agribusiness enterprises
4. Trading enterprises
39. व्यवसाय संचालन के अंतर्राष्ट्रीयकरण के लिए उप्साला मॉडल किसके लिए मान्य नहीं है
1. निर्माण संगठन
2. सेवा संगठन
3. कृषि व्यवसाय उद्यम
4. व्यापारिक उद्यम
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The Uppsala model distinguishes between the establishment chain, which deals with internationalisation patterns, and the psychological distance chain, which includes market and cultural knowledge. They believe that businesses begin to grow and thrive in their home markets before expanding into other markets. ©navclasses
40. Who coined the metaphor ‘invisible hand’ in the Theory of Moral Sentiments?
(Economics)
1. Milton Friedman
2. David Ricardo
3. Michael Porter
4. Adam Smith
40. नैतिक भावनाओं के सिद्धांत में ‘अदृश्य हाथ’ रूपक किसने गढ़ा?
1. मिल्टन फ्रीडमैन
2. डेविड रिकार्डो
3. माइकल पोर्टर
4. एडम स्मिथ
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The invisible hand describes the unintended social benefits of an individual’s self-interested actions, a concept that was first introduced by Adam Smith in The Theory of Moral Sentiments, written in 1759, invoking it in reference to income distribution. ©navclasses
41. The defenders of the sustainability approach toward Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) point out that
(Business )
A. All economic activity exists within a biosphere that support all life
B. The success of business must bejudged only against profitability
C. People have a strong ethical duty to cause no harm and only a prime facie duty to prevent harm
D. Business sole responsiblity is to fulfil the economic functions they were designed to serve
E. Customer service is most important
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. B,C,D only
3. A and C Only
4. A only
41. कॉर्पोरेट सामाजिक उत्तरदायित्व की ओर स्थिरता दृष्टिकोण के रक्षक defend (सीएसआर) बताते हैं कि
(व्यवसाय)
ए. सभी आर्थिक गतिविधियां एक जीवमंडल के भीतर मौजूद हैं जो सभी जीवन का समर्थन करती हैं
B. व्यवसाय की सफलता को केवल लाभप्रदता के आधार पर आंका जाना चाहिए सी. लोगों का एक मजबूत नैतिक कर्तव्य है कि वे कोई नुकसान न पहुंचाएं और केवल एक प्रमुख कर्तव्य है duty नुकसान को रोकें
डी. व्यवसाय की एक
मात्र जिम्मेदारी उन आर्थिक कार्यों को पूरा करना है जिन्हें वे डिजाइन किए गए थे सेवा कर ई. ग्राहक सेवा सबसे महत्वपूर्ण है
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: CSR (corporate social responsibility) is a self-regulatory business model that enables a firm to be socially responsible—to itself, its stakeholders, and the general public. Companies can be aware of their impact on all parts of society, including economic, social, and environmental, by exercising corporate social responsibility, also known as corporate citizenship. ©navclasses
42. Objective of energy management and audit invariably includes which of the following in business enterprises?
(Auditing)
A. Minimising cost of energy consumption
B. Minimising waste in energy consumption
C. Scaling harmful impacts of pollution on health of the natives
D. Minimising environmental degradation
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A,B and C only
2. B,C and D only
3. A, B and D only
4. A,B,C and D only
42. ऊर्जा प्रबंधन और लेखा परीक्षा के उद्देश्य में निरपवाद रूप से निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा शामिल है: व्यापारिक उद्यम?
(लेखा परीक्षा)
ए ऊर्जा खपत की लागत को कम करना
बी ऊर्जा खपत में कचरे को कम करना
सी. मूल निवासियों के स्वास्थ्य पर प्रदूषण के हानिकारक प्रभावों को कम करना
डी. पर्यावरणीय गिरावट को कम करना
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The planning and maintenance of energy generation and utilisation units, as well as energy delivery and storage, are also part of energy management. The goals are to save resources, protect the environment, and save money by ensuring that consumers have constant access to the electricity they need. ©navclasses
43. Which of the following aptly aims to alleviate financial stress of the borrowers at bottom of the pyramid by reducing their cost of credit in the new of covid — 19 pandemic?
(Dropped)
A. A generic loan moratorium to the borrowers
B Two percent interest subvention on Sishu loans under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana
C. Provisioning Rs.1,500 Crore for Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Fund (AHIDF) to help investment in diaring, meat processing and animal feed plants.
D. Financial incentives to Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs) and Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. A, B and D only
3. B and C only
4. D only
43. निम्नलिखित में से किसका उद्देश्य नीचे के उधारकर्ताओं के वित्तीय तनाव को कम करना है नए कोविड-19 महामारी में क्रेडिट की लागत को कम करके पिरामिड का? (गिराया गया)
ए. उधारकर्ताओं के लिए एक सामान्य ऋण अधिस्थगन
बी प्रधान मंत्री मुद्रा योजना के तहत शिशु ऋण पर दो प्रतिशत ब्याज सबवेंशन
ग. डायरिंग, मांस प्रसंस्करण और पशु चारा संयंत्रों में निवेश में मदद करने के लिए पशुपालन अवसंरचना कोष (एएचआईडीएफ) के लिए 1,500 करोड़ रुपये का प्रावधान।
डी. किसान उत्पादक संगठनों (एफपीओ) और सूक्ष्म, लघु और मध्यम उद्यमों (एमएसएमई) को वित्तीय प्रोत्साहन
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: This question is dropped by UGC ©navclasses
44. Organizational socialization is one very important aspect of orientation, the introduction of new employee to the enterprise. Which of the following is/are not designed for the socialization of new managers?
(HRM)
A. Acquisition of work skills and ability
B. Adoption of appropriate role behaviour
C. Adjustment to the norm and values of the work group
D. Filling a vacant position
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. D only
44. संगठनात्मक समाजीकरण अभिविन्यास का एक बहुत ही महत्वपूर्ण पहलू है, परिचय, उद्यम के लिए नए कर्मचारी की। निम्नलिखित में से कौन नए प्रबंधकों के समाजीकरण के लिए नहीं बनाया गया है?
(एचआरएम)
ए. कार्य कौशल और क्षमता का अधिग्रहण
बी उपयुक्त भूमिका व्यवहार को अपनाना
C. कार्य समूह के मानदंड और मूल्यों का समायोजन
D. रिक्त पद को भरना
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Following is/are designed for the socialisation of new managers: A. Acquisition of work skills and ability B. Adoption of appropriate role behaviour C. Adjustment to the norm and values of the work group ©navclasses
45.Which of the following are true of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) introduced in India in recent times?
(Business Law)
A. It is a destination tax
B. It benefits producing states more
C. It benefits consuming states more
D. It is a progressive taxation
E. It is an umbrella tax to improve ease of doing business
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. B,D and E only
2. A,C and D only
3. A,D and E only
4. A,C and E only
45. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा भारत में शुरू किए गए माल और सेवा कर (जीएसटी) के बारे में सही है हाल ही के दिनों में?
(व्यापार कानून)
ए. यह एक गंतव्य कर है
B. इससे उत्पादक राज्यों को अधिक लाभ होता है
C. इससे उपभोग करने वाले राज्यों को अधिक लाभ होता है
D. यह एक प्रगतिशील कराधान है
ई. व्यापार करने में आसानी में सुधार के लिए यह एक छत्र कर है
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: GST was implemented as a revolutionary transformation and the most significant overhaul of India’s tax structure since independence. GST replaced a slew of indirect taxes, including state sales taxes, service taxes, excise taxes, and so on, with a single, consistent central tax regime that applied to all goods and services. However, the most significant effect of GST was that it transformed India into a single unified market, allowing for unrestricted movement of goods. ©navclasses
46. Which of the following truly describe the govt. intervention in the MSME space in view of Covid-19 pandemic?
(Business)
A. Provisioning of collateral free automatic loans worth Rs. 3 lakh crores
B. Provision of 100% credit guarantee coverage to banks and NBFCs on principal and interest for loans to NBFCs
C. Redefined MSMES to include both investment and turnover criteria
D. Created a war chest of Rs.3.00,000 crores for the MSME loans and employment protection
E. Allocated Rs.3,00,000 crores for MSME loan moratorium and waiver
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A,B and C
2. B,C and D
3. C,D and E
4. A,C and D
46. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सही मायने में सरकार का वर्णन करता है। एमएसएमई क्षेत्र में हस्तक्षेप को देखते हुए कोविड 19 सर्वव्यापी महामारी?
ए. रुपये के संपार्श्विक मुक्त स्वचालित ऋण का प्रावधान। 3 लाख करोड़
बी. बैंकों और एनबीएफसी को मूलधन पर 100% क्रेडिट गारंटी कवरेज का प्रावधान और एनबीएफसी को ऋण के लिए ब्याज
C. निवेश और टर्नओवर मानदंड दोनों को शामिल करने के लिए MSME को पुनर्परिभाषित किया गया
D. MSME ऋण और रोजगार के लिए 3.00,000 करोड़ रुपये का युद्ध संदूक बनाया सुरक्षा
E. MSME ऋण स्थगन और छूट के लिए 3,00,000 करोड़ रुपये आवंटित किए गए
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The COVID-19 has had an impact on all sectors of the economy, but no sector has been hit harder than India’s Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). All anecdotal data suggests that MSMEs have been the worst victims of the Covid-19-induced lockout, as evidenced by the hundreds of thousands of stranded workers. ©navclasses
47.The consumer‘s price sensitivity is/are influenced by
(Economics)
A. Who bears the cost
B. What percentage of total expenditure does the product represent
C. Who bears the cost and type of retailer from where customer purchases
D. Consumption of product by the customer
E. Knowledge about the product
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A,B,E only
2. B and D only
3. A,B,D only
4. A,B,D,E only
47.उपभोक्ता की मूल्य संवेदनशीलता (अर्थशास्त्र) से प्रभावित होती है/हैं
ए. लागत कौन वहन करता है
B. उत्पाद कुल व्यय का कितना प्रतिशत दर्शाता है
सी. खुदरा विक्रेता की लागत और प्रकार कौन वहन करता है जहां से ग्राहक खरीदारी करता है
D. ग्राहक द्वारा उत्पाद की खपत
ई. उत्पाद के बारे में ज्ञान
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The “9 factors affecting a consumers’ price sensitivity.”
Price-Quality Effect:
Expenditure Effect.
End-Benefit Effect.
Shared-cost Effect.
The Framing Effect.
Fairness Effect.
Reference Price Effect.
Difficult Comparison Effect.
©navclasses
48.Which of these are readily accepted distinguishing characteristics of the services that create unique strategic challenges?
(Marketing)
A. inflexibility
B. Perishability
C. inseparability
D. intangibility
E. lnscrutability
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. B,C,D only
2. A,B,C,D only
3. C,D,E only
4. B and D only
48.इनमें से कौन सी सेवाओं की आसानी से स्वीकृत विशिष्ट विशेषताएं हैं जो अद्वितीय रणनीतिक चुनौतियां पैदा करती हैं?
(विपणन)
ए लचीलापन
ख. शीघ्रपतन
सी. अविभाज्यता
डी. अस्थिरता
ई. विश्वसनीयता
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The most important characteristics of services are:
Lack of ownership.
Intangibility.
Inseparability.
Variability.
Perishability.
User participation
©navclasses
49.Suppose a customer who purchases only two goods is making a utility – maximizing choice and then the price of one of the goods decreases. What will happen?
(Economics)
A. The consumer’s purchasing power will increase
B. The consumer’s total utility will increase
C. The consumer’s money income will increase
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A and C only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. A,B and C only
49. मान लीजिए कि एक ग्राहक जो केवल दो सामान खरीदता है, उपयोगिता बना रहा है – अधिकतम विकल्प और फिर एक सामान की कीमत घट जाती है। क्या होगा?
(अर्थशास्त्र)
A. उपभोक्ता की क्रय शक्ति बढ़ेगी
B. उपभोक्ता की कुल उपयोगिता में वृद्धि होगी
C. उपभोक्ता की धन आय में वृद्धि होगी
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: MUx/Px = MUy/Py,
where MUx is the marginal utility derived from good x, Px is the price of good x, MUy is the marginal utility of good y and Py is the price of good y. A consumer should spend his limited money income on the goods which give him the most marginal utility per dollar. Only when the ratio of MU/P is equal for all goods is a consumer maximizing his total utility. ©navclasses
50.Which of the following could be problems with consumer interviews? (Statistics)
A. A non-random sample B. The identification problem C. Response bias
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A and C only
4. B only
50.उपभोक्ता साक्षात्कार में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी समस्या हो सकती है?
ए गैर-यादृच्छिक नमूना
B. पहचान की समस्या
सी प्रतिक्रिया पूर्वाग्रह
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Response bias, also known as survey bias, is the tendency of a person to untruthfully or misleadingly answer questions of a survey. … This can become a problem with customer interviews, especially with self-reporting participant surveys. ©navclasses
51.Process Costing is appropriate for which of the following firms?
(Costing)
A. Logistic and Transportation firms
B. Pharmaceutical and healthcare firms
C. Tourism and hospitality firms
D. Oil refining firms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and C
2. B and C
3. A,B and C
4. D only
51.प्रक्रिया लागत निम्नलिखित में से किस फर्म के लिए उपयुक्त है?
ए रसद और परिवहन फर्म
B. फार्मास्युटिकल और हेल्थकेयर फर्म
सी. पर्यटन और आतिथ्य फर्म
D. तेल शोधन फर्में
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Process costing is an accounting approach for tracking and accumulating direct expenses in a manufacturing process, as well as allocating indirect costs. Costs are given to items in huge batches, which might span a month’s worth of manufacturing. ©navclasses
52.In order to calculate capital adequacy ratio, the banks are required to take into consideration, which of the following risks?
(Accounts)
A. Credit risk
B. Market risk
C. Operational risk
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A and C only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. A,B and C only
52.पूंजी पर्याप्तता अनुपात की गणना करने के लिए, बैंकों को निम्नलिखित में से किस जोखिम को ध्यान में रखना आवश्यक है?
ए. क्रेडिट जोखिम
बी बाजार जोखिम
सी. परिचालन जोखिम
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: :Capital Adequacy Ratio helps in measuring the financial strength or the ability of the financial institutions in meeting its obligations using its assets and capital and it is calculated by dividing capital of the bank by its risk-weighted assets. ©navclasses
53.Identify on which of the three mutually reinforcing pillars Basel-III capital regulations are based?
(Banking)
A. Minimum capital standards
B. Supervisory review of capital adequacy
C. Credit risk management
D. Market discipline
E. Management control
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. A, B and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, C and D only
53.पहचानें कि बासेल-III पूंजी विनियम के तीन परस्पर प्रबल स्तंभों में से कौन सा है आधारित?
ए. न्यूनतम पूंजी मानक
बी पूंजी पर्याप्तता की पर्यवेक्षी समीक्षा
सी. क्रेडिट जोखिम प्रबंधन
D. बाजार अनुशासन
ई. प्रबंधन नियंत्रण
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: :1. Minimum Capital Requirements
2. Leverage Ratio
3. Liquidity Requirements
©navclasses
54.Which of the following are sufficient to determine shutdown point of multi commodity firm in the short — run?
(Economics)
A. Variable cost of operations
B. Marginal revenue received
C. Average variable cost of operations
D. Average marginal revenue received
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. C and D only
3. A, B and C only
4. B. C and D only
54.निम्नलिखित में से कौन बहु वस्तु के शटडाउन बिंदु को निर्धारित करने के लिए पर्याप्त है शॉर्ट रन में फर्म?
ए. संचालन की परिवर्तनीय लागत
B. प्राप्त सीमांत राजस्व
सी. संचालन की औसत परिवर्तनीय लागत
D. प्राप्त औसत सीमांत राजस्व
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: A point at which a businessman thinks that there is no benefit in continuing the business operations and decides to shut down the business either temporarily or permanently is called the shutdown point. ©navclasses
55.Survey instruments used to assess customer perception of service quality are called
(Marketing)
A. CETSCALE
B. SERVQUAL
C. SERVPREF
D. DINESERV
E. RSQS
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A. B. C and D only
4. B, C, D and E only
55.सेवा गुणवत्ता के ग्राहक धारणा का आकलन करने के लिए उपयोग किए जाने वाले सर्वेक्षण उपकरणों को कहा जाता है
ए. सीईटीएसकेएल
बी सर्वक्वाल
सी. सर्वप्रेफ
डी. डिनरसर्व
ई. आरएसक्यूएस
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: To assess the difference between customer perceptions and reality, SERVQUAL was originally assessed on ten dimensions of service quality: reliability, responsiveness, competence, access, courtesy, communication, reputation, protection, knowing the customer, and tangibles. SERVQUAL (Parasuraman et al., 1988) defines service quality as the difference between a customer’s perceived performance and their expected performance. SERVPERF (Cronin and Taylor, 1992), on the other hand, is a performance-based approach to measuring service quality. Customers were drawn to the service quality in retail stores, according to the RSQS model (Dabholkar et al., 1996), and it is assumed that service quality contributes to customer satisfaction. DINESERV” is proposed as a dependable and reasonably easy method for assessing how customers perceive the quality of a restaurant. The DINESERV questionnaire has 29 questions that are divided into five categories: assurance, empathy, reliability, responsiveness, and tangibles. ©navclasses
56.Channel conflicts can be
(Marketing)
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Diagonal
D. Circular
E. Triangular
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A and C only
2. B and C only
3. A and B only
4. A. B and C only
56.चैनल संघर्ष (विपणन) हो सकता है
ए लंबवत
बी क्षैतिज
सी विकर्ण
डी परिपत्र
ई त्रिकोणीय
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Vertical Channel Conflict: This form of conflict occurs when various layers of a channel clash. For example, a disagreement between a producer and a wholesaler about price, quantity, marketing practises, and so on.
Horizontal Channel Conflict: This form of conflict occurs when two levels in the same channel are at odds with each other. For example, in a dispute between two stores from the same vendor, there are differences in price targets, area scope, advertising schemes, and so on.
Conflict between different sales networks engaging in a shared sale for the same brand is known as multichannel conflict. ©navclasses
57.Which of the following retail analytic applications involve(s] the use of search techniques to gain insights into customer’s buying patterns?
(Statistics)
A. Factor analysis
B. Regression analysis
C. Data mining
D. Data scrapping
E. Data cloning
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A. C and D only
4. C only
57.निम्नलिखित में से किस खुदरा विश्लेषणात्मक अनुप्रयोगों में खोज तकनीकों का उपयोग शामिल है ग्राहक के खरीद पैटर्न में अंतर्दृष्टि प्राप्त करने के लिए?
(सांख्यिकी)
ए फैक्टर विश्लेषण
बी रिग्रेशन विश्लेषण
सी डाटा माइनिंग
डी डेटा स्क्रैपिंग
ई. डेटा क्लोनिंग
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Data mining is the process of predicting outcomes by looking for anomalies, patterns, and correlations in huge data sets. You may use this information to enhance sales, lower costs, strengthen customer connections, reduce risks, and more using a variety of approaches. ©navclasses
58.Which of the following narratives describe Fisher (Irving) effect?
(Economics)
A. Nominal, interest rate is equal to a real interest rate plus an expected interest rate
B. Real interest rate is equal to nominal interest rate minus expected rate of inflation
C. Exchange rate differential between two currencies is explained by interest – inflation rate differential
D. Exchange rate differential between two currencies is explained by comparative cost advantage and purchasing power parity
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A. B and C only
2. A and B only
3. C and D only
4. B, C and D only
58.निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा आख्यान फिशर (इरविंग) प्रभाव का वर्णन करता है?
(अर्थशास्त्र)
ए नाममात्र, ब्याज दर वास्तविक ब्याज दर और अपेक्षित ब्याज दर के बराबर है
बी वास्तविक ब्याज दर नाममात्र ब्याज दर के बराबर है मुद्रास्फीति की अपेक्षित दर घटाकर
C. दो मुद्राओं के बीच विनिमय दर अंतर को ब्याज – मुद्रास्फीति द्वारा समझाया गया है दर अंतर
D. दो मुद्राओं के बीच विनिमय दर अंतर तुलनात्मक लागत द्वारा समझाया गया है लाभ और क्रय शक्ति समता
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The Fisher Effect, coined by economist Irving Fisher, defines the association between inflation and both actual and nominal interest rates. As a result, unless nominal rates rise at the same rate as inflation, actual interest rates decline as inflation rises. ©navclasses
59.Which of the following include problems in forecasting?
(Statistics)
A. estimates becoming more reliable the further you forecast into the future
B. specification error
C. cyclical variation
D. stationarity in data series
E. consistency in data series
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. B.C and D only
3. B and C only
4. A and C only
59.निम्नलिखित में से किसमें पूर्वानुमान में समस्याएं शामिल हैं?
(सांख्यिकी)
ए. अनुमान और अधिक विश्वसनीय होते जाते हैं जितना आप भविष्य में पूर्वानुमान लगाते हैं
बी विनिर्देश त्रुटि
सी चक्रीय भिन्नता
D. डेटा श्रृंखला में स्थिरता
ई. डेटा श्रृंखला में स्थिरता
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Forecasting is the process of making predictions based on past and present data and most commonly by analysis of trends. A commonplace example might be estimation of some variable of interest at some specified future date ©navclasses
60.Which one of the following is/are hold(s) true to successfully practice price discrimination?
(Economics)
A. The firm must be a pure monopoly
B. The firm must possess market power
C. It must be difficult for consumers in one market to sell to consumers in the other market
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A and C only
4. C only
60. मूल्य भेदभाव का सफलतापूर्वक अभ्यास करने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
ए। फर्म को शुद्ध एकाधिकार होना चाहिए
बी। फर्म के पास बाजार की शक्ति होनी चाहिए
C. एक बाजार में उपभोक्ताओं के लिए दूसरे बाजार में उपभोक्ताओं को बेचना मुश्किल होना चाहिए
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Three factors to successfully practice price discrimination: The firm must possess market power. The firm must be able to recognize differences in demand or must be able to control supply. The firm must have the ability to prevent the resale of the product from one buyer to another. ©navclasses
70. Match List I (Cost concepts) List II (Description)
(Accounts)
A. Sunk cost I. Change in total cost for a unit change in output
B. Marginal cost II. Value of inputs owned and used in production
C. Investment cost III. Costs that are unaffected by firm decision
D. Implicit cost IV. Total increase in costs resulting from a decision
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
3. A-IV, B- II, C-II, D-I
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
70. मिलान सूची I (लागत अवधारणा) सूची II
(विवरण)
A. डूब लागत I. उत्पादन में एक इकाई परिवर्तन के लिए कुल लागत में परिवर्तन
B. सीमांत लागत II। उत्पादन में स्वामित्व और उपयोग किए गए इनपुट का मूल्य
C. निवेश लागत III. लागत जो दृढ़ निर्णय से अप्रभावित हैं
डी. निहित लागत IV. निर्णय के परिणामस्वरूप लागत में कुल वृद्धि
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: “A cost that has been incurred by an entity, and which it can no longer recover by any means, is the sunk cost”.
Marginal cost is also known as “Incremental Cost” and “Variable Cost”. It is defined as “the change in total cost that comes from making an additional unit. It is relevant cost for the decision making.
An implicit cost, also known as an imputed cost, implied cost, or notional cost in economics, is the opportunity cost that a corporation must pay in order to use a factor of production that it already owns and hence does not pay rent for.
The amount of money invested, as well as the investment expenditure required to exercise the option (the cost of transforming the investment opportunity into the underlying asset of the option).
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71 Match (Theoretical Foundations of Global Trade) (Economists)
(International Relations)
A. Absolute cost advantage I. Michael Porter
B. Factor endowment theory II. David Ricardo
C. National competitive advantage III. Hecksher and Ohlin
D. Comparative cost advantage IV. Adam smith
1. A-IV, B- III, C-I, D-II
2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3. A-, B-IV, C-III, D-II
4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
71 मैच (वैश्विक व्यापार की सैद्धांतिक नींव) (अर्थशास्त्री) (अंतर्राष्ट्रीय संबंध)
A. पूर्ण लागत लाभ I. माइकल पोर्टर
B. कारक बंदोबस्ती सिद्धांत II। डेविड रिकार्डो
सी. राष्ट्रीय प्रतिस्पर्धात्मक लाभ III. हेक्शर और ओहलिन
D. तुलनात्मक लागत लाभ IV. एडम स्मिथ
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Theory of Absolute Cost Advantage: Adam Smith, the father of economics, thought that the basis of international trade was absolute cost advantage.
According to the factor endowment theory, countries are more likely to have a diverse range of resources. According to the Hechsher-Olin Theory, a country will have a comparative advantage in the good that uses the factor with which it is endowed heavily.
Michael Porter’s Diamond Model (also known as the Theory of National Competitive Advantage of Industries) is a diamond-shaped framework that explains why some industries within a country are international competitors while others aren’t.
Comparative advantage is an economic theory proposed by David Ricardo in the 19th century that attributes the causes and benefits of international commerce to differences in relative opportunity costs (costs in terms of other products foregone) of manufacturing the same commodities among countries.
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Match the items of List I with the items of List ill and choose the correct code of combination:
(Business Law)
List I List II
A Indian Contract Act (I) 2002
B. Right to Information Act L (II) 1872
C Information Technology Act (III) 2005
D. Competition Act (IV) 2000
1. A-I B-II, C-III D-IV
2 A-II B-IV. C-I D-III
3. A-Ill, B-IV, C-II, D-I
4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
सूची I सूची II
एक भारतीय अनुबंध अधिनियम (I) 2002
बी सूचना का अधिकार अधिनियम एल (ii) 1872
सी सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी अधिनियम (III) 2005
D. प्रतिस्पर्धा अधिनियम (IV) 2000
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Indian Contract Act 1872
Right to Information Act 2005
Information Technology Act 2000
Competition Act 2002
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73.Match the item of List I with the items of List Il and suggest the correct code:
(Banking)
A Relationship Banking I Dealing in hundis and acceptance of deposits
B Merchant Banking II Widening the entrepreneurial base and assist in a rapid rate of industrial growth
C. Indigenous Banking III. Engaged in the business of capital issue management
D. Development Banking IV. Creating, maintaining and enhancing strong relationship with customers
1. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
2. A-II B-III C-I D- IV
3. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
4. A-II B-I C-IV, D-III
एक रिलेशनशिप बैंकिंग I हुंडी में काम करना और जमा की स्वीकृति
बी मर्चेंट बैंकिंग II उद्यमशीलता के आधार को चौड़ा करना और औद्योगिक विकास की तीव्र दर में सहायता करना
C. स्वदेशी बैंकिंग III. पूंजी निर्गम प्रबंधन के व्यवसाय में संलग्न
D. विकास बैंकिंग IV. ग्राहकों के साथ मजबूत संबंध बनाना, बनाए रखना और बढ़ाना
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Relationship Banking: Banks utilise relationship banking as a method to offer a variety of goods, improve customer loyalty, and earn more revenue. Customers are frequently approached by relationship bankers with offers such as insurance, investments, and certificates of deposit.
Merchant Banking: Historically, a merchant bank was a financial institution that specialised in commercial loans and investments. It is the same as an investment bank in modern British use. Merchant banks arose from mediaeval merchants who traded in commodities, particularly cloth merchants, and were the first modern banks.
Indeginous Banking: The indigenous banking system is a banking system in which private companies or individuals function as banks by offering financial services such as loans and deposit acceptance. The indigenous banking system is composed of indigenous bankers who are not regulated by the government.
Development Banking: a development bank can be characterised as a financial organisation that provides business units with all sorts of financial support (short and long term) in the form of loans, underwriting, investment and guarantee operations, and promotional activities – economic development.
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74. Match the items of List with those of List II and choose the correct code of combination:
(Income Tax)
A 80 GGC I. Deduction in respect of rent paid
B. 80 GG II. Deduction in respect of contribution given by company to political parties
C 80 GGA III. Deduction in respect of contribution given by any person to political parties
D. 80 GGB IV. Deduction in respect of certain donations for scientific research
1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
2 A-III B II C-IV, D-I
3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4 A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
74. सूची की मदों को सूची II की मदों से सुमेलित कीजिए और संयोजन का सही कूट चुनिए:
(आयकर)
A 80 GGC I. भुगतान किए गए किराए के संबंध में कटौती
बी 80 जीजी II। कंपनी द्वारा राजनीतिक दलों को दिए गए योगदान के संबंध में कटौती
सी 80 जीजीए III। किसी भी व्यक्ति द्वारा राजनीतिक दलों को दिए गए योगदान के संबंध में कटौती
डी 80 जीजीबी IV। वैज्ञानिक अनुसंधान के लिए कुछ दान के संबंध में कटौती
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The section 80GGC of the Income Tax Act allows the deductions from the total income of an individual taxpayer for his/her contributions made towards electoral trust or political party.
Section 80GGA allows deductions for donations made towards scientific research or rural development. This deduction is allowed to all assessees except those who have an income (or loss) from a business and/or a profession.
As per Section 80GGB of the Income Tax Act, 1961, any Indian company or enterprise that donates to a political party or an electoral trust registered in India can claim a deduction for the amount contributed.
80GG is a deduction under Chapter VI-A of the Income Tax Act, 1961. It has been introduced to provide relief to those individuals who do not receive any house rent allowance but are paying rent for the stay.
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75. Match (International product life cycle stage) & (International competition)
(Marketing)
A. Introduction I. Companies from other high-income countries increase exports to the innovating country
B. Growth II. Competitors from other high-income countries may begin production in developing countries
C. Maturity III. A few competitors at home
D. Decline IV. Competitors in other high-income countries begin production for their domestic markets
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A – III, B – IV, C-I, D – II
2. A-III, B – I, C-IV, D-||
3. A – II, B – IV, C-I, D-III
4.A – IV, B – II, C-I, D-III
75.मैच (अंतर्राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद जीवन चक्र चरण) और (अंतर्राष्ट्रीय प्रतियोगिता)
(विपणन)
A. परिचय I. अन्य उच्च आय वाले देशों की कंपनियां नवोन्मेषी देश को निर्यात बढ़ाती हैं
बी विकास I। अन्य उच्च आय वाले देशों के प्रतियोगी विकासशील देशों में उत्पादन शुरू कर सकते हैं
सी परिपक्वता III घर पर कुछ प्रतियोगी
डी गिरावट IV अन्य उच्च आय वाले देशों के प्रतियोगी अपने घरेलू बाजारों के लिए उत्पादन शुरू करते हैं
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: A product’s lifecycle is determined by its sales volume, introduction, and growth. These are constants in worldwide marketing, and they include the consequences of outsourcing and overseas production.
The first stage (Introduction)
A new product is launched in this stage in a target market when the intended consumers are unaware of its existence. Customers who are aware of the product’s presence may be willing to spend a greater price to obtain high-quality goods or services. Because of the constant shift in manufacturing technologies, production is entirely dependent on competent personnel.
The second stage (Growth)
A well-marketed product satisfies the needs of its target market. The product’s exporter conducts market research, analyses the data, and determines the market’s size and composition. The competition is still modest at this point. In the growth stage, sales volume increases quickly. This period of the product lifecycle is characterised by price fluctuations, large profitability, and promotional offers.
the third stage (Maturity)
The degree of product demand and sales volumes increase slowly at this stage of the product lifetime. Duplicate products have been observed in international marketplaces, indicating a drop in export sales. The original exporter lowers prices in order to maintain market share and accompany sales.
the fourth stage (Saturation)
At this point, the product’s sales have reached their pinnacle and there is no way to grow them any more. Saturation of sales characterises this stage. (At first, sales appear to be consistent, but then they begin to decline.) Sales will continue until alternatives are available.
FINAL STAGE (Decline)
The product lifetime comes to a close at this point. At this point, sales volumes are declining, and many of these products are being phased out or no longer used. Other countries’ economies that have created items that are similar to or better than the original exporter’s export their products to the original exporter’s home market.
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76.What is the correct sequence of distribution of amount realised under section 154 of CGST rules?
(Business Law)
a. Appropriated against the administrative cost of the recovery process.
b. Appropriated against any other amount due from defaulter under the Act or IGST Act. 2017.
c. Appropriated against the amount due to be recovered from defaulter.
d. Balance amount, if any shall be refunded to the defaulter
1. A. B, D. C
2. A. C. B. D
3. C, A. B. D
4. C, B, A. D
76.सीजीएसटी नियमों की धारा 154 के तहत वसूल की गई राशि के वितरण का सही क्रम क्या है?
(व्यापार कानून)
ए। वसूली प्रक्रिया की प्रशासनिक लागत के विरुद्ध विनियोजित।
बी अधिनियम या आईजीएसटी अधिनियम के तहत चूककर्ता से देय किसी अन्य राशि के लिए विनियोजित। 2017।
सी। चूककर्ता से वसूल की जाने वाली राशि के विरूद्ध विनियोजित।
डी बकाया राशि, यदि कोई हो, चूककर्ता को वापस कर दी जाएगी
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: So the correct sequence is:
a. Appropriated against the administrative cost of the recovery process.
c. Appropriated against the amount due to be recovered from defaulter.
b. Appropriated against any other amount due from defaulter under the Act or IGST Act. 2017.
d. Balance amount, if any shall be refunded to the defaulter
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77.Arrange the following in correct sequence:
(Income Tax)
A. Income under the different heads of Income.
B. Deduction from gross total income.
C. Adjustment of losses of the current year and earlier years.
D. Rounding off.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. A, C, B, D
2. A,B,C,D
3. A,B,D,C
4. A,D.B.C
77.निम्नलिखित को सही क्रम में व्यवस्थित करें:
(आयकर)
A. आय के विभिन्न शीर्षों के तहत आय।
बी सकल कुल आय से कटौती।
सी. चालू वर्ष और पिछले वर्षों के नुकसान का समायोजन।
डी. राउंडिंग ऑफ।
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: A, C, B and D is the correct sequence.
A. Income under the different heads of Income.
C. Adjustment of losses of the current year and earlier years.
B. Deduction from gross total income.
D. Rounding off.
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78.Which of the following industry verticals received a boost amid covid-19 pandemic lockdowns?
(Business)
A. Online education, gaming and entertainment
8. E-Commerce and E-Payment infrastructure
C. Retailing and pharmaceuticals
D. Hospitality and healthcare services
E. manufacturing and MSME
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A. B and D only
2. A. C and E only
3. A. B and C only
4. C. D and E only
78. निम्नलिखित में से किस उद्योग कार्यक्षेत्र को कोविड-19 महामारी लॉकडाउन के बीच बढ़ावा मिला है?
(व्यापार)
A. ऑनलाइन शिक्षा, गेमिंग और मनोरंजन
B. ई-कॉमर्स और ई-पेमेंट इंफ्रास्ट्रक्चर
सी खुदरा बिक्री और फार्मास्यूटिकल्स
डी आतिथ्य और स्वास्थ्य सेवाएं
ई. विनिर्माण और एमएसएमई
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: A. Online education, gaming and entertainment,
B. E-Commerce and E-Payment infrastructure
C. Retailing and pharmaceuticals
These sectors grew due to availability of large no. internet service and medium providers in the edtech sector and as regular brick and mortar shops were closed so people did online shopping for their needed items.
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79.Arrange the following management functions in a logical sequence of getting things done.
(Management)
A. Planning
B. Staffing
C. Organizing
D. Coordinating
E. Controlling
F. Directing
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A. B, C. D. F and E
2. A. C. B. F, D and E
3. A. C. B. D. F and E
4. A. C, B. D. E and F
79. निम्नलिखित प्रबंधन कार्यों को कार्यों को करने के तार्किक क्रम में व्यवस्थित करें।
ए योजना
B. स्टाफिंग
सी आयोजन
डी समन्वय
ई. नियंत्रण
एफ निर्देशन
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The correct sequence in management is
Planning and then organising the task , then recruiting the right staff and then directing and motivating them to do the task , then controlling and evaluating their completed task and coordinating with them to do well.
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80.Sequence the following CSR eligibility criteria and spending as per the provisions of the Indian Companies Act 2013.
(Legal Aspect)
A. Positive net worth of Rs.500 crores or more
B. Two percent of average profit spend on CSR
C. Net profit of Rs.5 crore or more in given financial year
D. Turnover of Rs.1,000 crore or more
E. Penal action for non compliance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. E.B,D.C and A
2. B.E,A,C and D
3. A.D.C,B and E
4. C,B,A.D and E
80. भारतीय कंपनी अधिनियम 2013 के प्रावधानों के अनुसार निम्नलिखित सीएसआर पात्रता मानदंड और खर्च का अनुक्रम करें।
ए. 500 करोड़ रुपये या उससे अधिक की सकारात्मक निवल संपत्ति
B. CSR पर औसत लाभ व्यय का दो प्रतिशत
C. दिए गए वित्तीय वर्ष में Rs.5 करोड़ या उससे अधिक का शुद्ध लाभ
डी. 1,000 करोड़ रुपये या उससे अधिक का कारोबार
ई. गैर अनुपालन के लिए दंडात्मक कार्रवाई
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The correct sequence is
Net worth > 500 crore
Turnover > 1000 crore
Net profit > 5 crore
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81.Sequence the steps in CRM process?
(Marketing)
A. Developing CRM programes
B. Collection of customer data
C. Analyzing customer data
D. Identify the target customers
E. Implementing programs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A. B. C. E. D
2. B. C, DA. E
3. B. C, A. E. D
4. C, D. E, A. B
81. सीआरएम प्रक्रिया में चरणों का अनुक्रम करें?
ए. सीआरएम कार्यक्रम विकसित करना
बी ग्राहक डेटा का संग्रहCollection
C. ग्राहक डेटा का विश्लेषण करना
D. लक्षित ग्राहकों की पहचान करें
ई. कार्यक्रमों को लागू करना
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Steps in CRM
How to Build a Successful CRM Strategy
Create a strategic vision for the CRM strategy.
Assemble a CRM group.
Employees Should Be Empowered.
Improve the efficiency of your processes.
Increase the accessibility of customer service.
Encourage collaboration inside the business.
Know who the customers are.
Correctly market your product or service.
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82.Sequence the following activities in the process of standard costing.
(Cost Accounting)
A. Establishing standard costs
B. Measurement of actual costs
C. Identifying variances and causes of variance
D. Disposing the variances to cost and profit centers
E. Comparision of actual and standard costs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.A, B, E, C and D
2. A, B, C. D and E
3. A, B, E, D and C
4. A, B, D. C and E
82. मानक लागत की प्रक्रिया में निम्नलिखित गतिविधियों को अनुक्रमित करें।
ए मानक लागत स्थापित करना
बी वास्तविक लागत का मापन
C. प्रसरण की पहचान करना और प्रसरण के कारण
डी. लागत और लाभ केंद्रों में भिन्नताओं का निपटान
ई. वास्तविक और मानक लागतों की तुलना
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: Process of Standard Costing:
Establishing standard costs
Measurement/Determination of actual costs
Comparison of actual and standard costs
Identifying variances and causes of variance
Disposing the variances to cost and profit centers
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83.Sequence the following activities in the process of accounting
(Accounts)
A. Journalising the transaction in the ledger accounts
B. Recording the business transaction in the books of entry
C. Preparation of Annual Financial statements
D. Preparation of the Trial Balance
E. Deriving meaningful inferences for business decisions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.A, B. C. D and E
2.A, B. D, E and C
3. D. C. E, B and A
4. B. A. D, C and E
83. लेखांकन की प्रक्रिया में निम्नलिखित गतिविधियों का अनुक्रम करें:
A. खाता बही खातों में लेन-देन का जर्नलिंग करना
B. व्यापार लेनदेन को प्रविष्टि की पुस्तकों में दर्ज करना
ग. वार्षिक वित्तीय विवरण तैयार करना
डी. ट्रायल बैलेंस तैयार करना
ई. व्यावसायिक निर्णयों के लिए सार्थक निष्कर्ष निकालना
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Explanation: The accounting period, also known as the accounting process, is a system of processes for gathering, analysing, and communicating financial data. For a corporate organisation, it entails complex steps in recording, classifying, summarising, and interpreting transactions and events. ©navclasses
84.Sequence the following in the capital budgeting process
(Financial Management)
A. Cash flow estimation
B. Identify discounting rate
C. Project selection decision
D. Determination of NPV
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C and D
2. A, B, D and C
3. D. A, B and C
4. B, A, D and C
84.पूंजीगत बजट प्रक्रिया में निम्नलिखित का अनुक्रम करें:
ए नकदी प्रवाह अनुमान
B. छूट दर की पहचान करें
सी. परियोजना चयन निर्णय
डी. एनपीवी का निर्धारण
SHOW ANSWER
Explanation: The correct Sequence is:
A. Cash flow estimation
B. Identify discounting rate
D. Determination of NPV
C. Project selection decision
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85.Which two of the following are correct about TDS certificates?
(Income Tax)
(a) TDS on salary payment – Form 16
(b) TDS on non-salary payment – Form 16A
(c) TDS on rent – Form 168
(d) TDS on sale of property – Form 16C
Choose the correct option:
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (a) and (d)
4. (b) and (c)
85.निम्नलिखित में से कौन से दो टीडीएस प्रमाणपत्रों के बारे में सही हैं?
(ए) वेतन भुगतान पर टीडीएस – फॉर्म 16
(बी) गैर-वेतन भुगतान पर टीडीएस – फॉर्म १६ए
(सी) किराए पर टीडीएस – फॉर्म 168
(डी) संपत्ति की बिक्री पर टीडीएस – फॉर्म 16सी
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Explanation: Form 16 TDS on salary payment Form 16 A TDS on non-salary payments Form 16 B TDS on sale of property Form 16 C TDS on rent ©navclasses
86.Statement I: Contracts whose objects or considerations are unlawful are void.
Statement II: Contracts in restraint of legal proceedings are void.
(Law)
Code:
1. Both Statements are correct
2. Both Statements are incorrect
3. Statement | is correct but II is incorrect
4. Statement | is incorrect but ll is correct
86.कथन I: जिन अनुबंधों के उद्देश्य या विचार गैरकानूनी हैं, वे शून्य हैं।
कथन II: कानूनी कार्यवाही में बाधा डालने वाली संविदाएं शून्य हैं।
कोड:
1. दोनों कथन सही हैं
2. दोनों कथन गलत हैं
3. वक्तव्य | सही है लेकिन II गलत है
4. वक्तव्य | गलत है लेकिन ll सही है
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Explanation: A contract is a legally binding arrangement. A void agreement is one that cannot be enforced through the legal system. A legally binding arrangement, such as a contract, can become void at any time.
A legitimate contract is an agreement between two parties to offer a product or service in writing or in person. A contract has six basic components that make it a valid and binding document. A contract must include the following elements in order to be enforceable:
An offer that spells out exactly what will be delivered.
Acceptance, or the other party’s consent to the offer made
The exchange of money or something of value between the parties is known as consideration.
The parties’ capacity in terms of age and mental ability
Both sides want to follow through on their promises.
The contract’s object is legal and not contrary to public policy or the law.
©navclasses
87.Assertion A: Workers participation in management is involvement of workers only in such areas of activities of the enterprises where they can make some positive contribution.
Reasoning R: Workers may not be competent enough to understand and appreciate the managerial aspects of the enterprise.
(HRM)
Code:
1. Both A and R are correct but R is not the right explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is incorrect
4. Both A and R are incorrect.
87. अभिकथन ए: प्रबंधन में श्रमिकों की भागीदारी केवल उद्यमों की गतिविधियों के ऐसे क्षेत्रों में श्रमिकों की भागीदारी है जहां वे कुछ सकारात्मक योगदान दे सकते हैं।
तर्क आर: श्रमिक उद्यम के प्रबंधकीय पहलुओं को समझने और उनकी सराहना करने के लिए पर्याप्त रूप से सक्षम नहीं हो सकते हैं।
कोड:
1. A और R दोनों सही हैं लेकिन R, A की सही व्याख्या नहीं करता है
2. A और R दोनों सही हैं और R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है
3. ए सही है लेकिन आर गलत है
4. A और R दोनों गलत हैं।
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Explanation: Four effective On the Job methods:
Coaching or one-on-one training. Coaching is a positive way to train your new recruits. …
Mentoring programs. …
Computer or online-based training modules. …
Job rotation.
8 off-the-job training methods
Classroom lectures. Also known as the lecture method, classroom lectures often train white collar or management-level employees. …
Audio-visual. …
Simulation. …
Vestibule training. …
Case studies. …
Role playing. …
Programmed instructions. …
Management games.
©navclasses
88.Assertion A: Credit flows to agriculture and SME sector have increased in recent years.
Reasoning R: Reserve Bank of India has gradually relaxed various controls in the credit market.
Code:
1. A and R both are correct and R is the right explanation of A
2. A and R both are correct but R is NOT the right explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is incorrect
4. Both A and R are incorrect
88. अभिकथन ए: हाल के वर्षों में कृषि और एसएमई क्षेत्र में ऋण प्रवाह में वृद्धि हुई है।
तर्क आर: भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक ने धीरे-धीरे क्रेडिट बाजार में विभिन्न नियंत्रणों में ढील दी है।
कोड:
1. A और R दोनों सही हैं और R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है
2. A और R दोनों सही हैं लेकिन R, A की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
3. ए सही है लेकिन आर गलत है
4. A और R दोनों गलत हैं
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Explanation: Reason is a clear explanation of the assertion related to credit flow. ©navclasses
89.Assertion A: TRIMs and TRIPS provisions facilitates and promotes FDI.
Reason R: TRIMs and TRIPS provisions remove restrictions and address capital flow sensitivities.
(Economics)
Choose the correct response from following:
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the right explanation ofA
2. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the right explanation of A
3. A is correct and R is not correct
4. Both A and R are incorrect
89. अभिकथन ए: टीआरआईएम और ट्रिप्स प्रावधान एफडीआई की सुविधा और बढ़ावा देते हैं।
(अर्थशास्त्र)
कारण आर: टीआरआईएम और ट्रिप्स प्रावधान प्रतिबंधों को हटाते हैं और पूंजी प्रवाह संवेदनशीलता को संबोधित करते हैं।
निम्नलिखित में से सही उत्तर चुनें:
1. A और R दोनों सही हैं और R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है
2. A और R दोनों सही हैं और R, A की सही व्याख्या नहीं करता है
3. A सही है और R सही नहीं है
4. A और R दोनों गलत हैं
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Explanation: Reason is a clear explanation of the assertion
TRIPS
TRIPS is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World Trade Organization
TRIMS- TRIMS are rules that are applicable to the domestic regulations a country applies to foreign investors, often as part of an industrial policy.
©navclasses
90.Assertion A: Equilibrium price of a commodity is the price at which the quantity demanded of the commodity equals the quantity supplied.
Reason R: Equilibrium, is the condition, once determined, tends to persist in time.
(Economics)
Choose the right options:
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the right explanation ofA
2. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation ofA
3. A is correct and R is not correct
4. Both A and R are incorrect
90. अभिकथन A: किसी वस्तु का संतुलन मूल्य वह मूल्य है जिस पर वस्तु की मांग की मात्रा आपूर्ति की मात्रा के बराबर होती है।
कारण आर: संतुलन, वह स्थिति है, जो एक बार निर्धारित हो जाने पर समय पर बनी रहती है।
सही विकल्प चुनें:
1. A और R दोनों सही हैं और R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है
2. A और R दोनों सही हैं और R, A की सही व्याख्या नहीं करता है
3. A सही है और R सही नहीं है
4. A और R दोनों गलत हैं
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Explanation: In every economy, the equilibrium price is the point at which quantity demanded equals quantity supplied. As a result, the market equilibrium price for coffee is $6 per pound. At the equilibrium price, the equilibrium quantity is the quantity demanded and supplied. ©navclasses
Company (AMC) and (iv) custodian. The trust is established by the sponsor who is like promoter of a company. The trustees of the mutual fund hold its property for the benefit of unit-holders. The trustees are vested with the general power of superintendence and direction over AMC. They monitor the performance and compliance of the SEBI regulations by the mutual fund. The AMC manages the funds by making investment in various types of securities. The Custodian holds the securities of the various schemes of the mutual fund in its safe custody. As an investment intermediary, mutual funds offer a variety of services/advantages to the relatively small investors who, on their own, cannot successfully construct and manage an investment portfolio mainly due to the small size of their funds. lack of expertize/experience and so on. These inter-alia, include convenience in terms of lower denomination of investment and liquidity. lower risk through diversification, export management and reduced transaction cost due to economies of scale.
Sub questions
>91. Who among the following monitors the compliance of SEBI regulations by the mutual fund?
(Banking)
Options:
1. Sponsor
2. Trustee
3. AMC
4. Custodian
(९१- ९५)। एक म्यूचुअल फंड एक विशेष प्रकार का निवेश संस्थान है जो एक निवेश नाली के रूप में कार्य करता है। यह अपेक्षाकृत छोटे निवेशकों की बचत को अच्छे निवेश के विविधीकृत पोर्टफोलियो में जमा करता है। म्यूचुअल फंड निवेशकों को उनके द्वारा निवेश किए गए धन की मात्रा के अनुसार प्रतिभूतियों (इकाइयाँ के रूप में जाना जाता है) जारी करते हैं। लाभ (या हानि) निवेशकों द्वारा उनके निवेश के अनुपात में साझा किया जाता है।
एक म्यूचुअल फंड एक ट्रस्ट के रूप में स्थापित किया जाता है जिसमें (i) एक प्रायोजक, (ii) ट्रस्टी, (iii) एसेट मैनेजमेंट होता है।
कंपनी (एएमसी) और (iv) संरक्षक। ट्रस्ट प्रायोजक द्वारा स्थापित किया जाता है जो एक कंपनी के प्रमोटर की तरह होता है। म्यूचुअल फंड के ट्रस्टी यूनिट-होल्डर्स के लाभ के लिए अपनी संपत्ति रखते हैं। न्यासी एएमसी पर अधीक्षण और निर्देशन की सामान्य शक्ति के साथ निहित हैं। वे म्यूचुअल फंड द्वारा सेबी के नियमों के प्रदर्शन और अनुपालन की निगरानी करते हैं। एएमसी विभिन्न प्रकार की प्रतिभूतियों में निवेश करके धन का प्रबंधन करती है। कस्टोडियन म्यूचुअल फंड की विभिन्न योजनाओं की प्रतिभूतियों को अपनी सुरक्षित अभिरक्षा में रखता है। एक निवेश मध्यस्थ के रूप में, म्युचुअल फंड अपेक्षाकृत छोटे निवेशकों को विभिन्न प्रकार की सेवाएं/लाभ प्रदान करते हैं, जो मुख्य रूप से अपने फंड के छोटे आकार के कारण निवेश पोर्टफोलियो का सफलतापूर्वक निर्माण और प्रबंधन नहीं कर सकते हैं। विशेषज्ञता/अनुभव की कमी आदि। इनमें अन्य बातों के साथ-साथ निवेश और तरलता के कम मूल्यवर्ग के संदर्भ में सुविधा शामिल है। विविधीकरण, निर्यात प्रबंधन के माध्यम से कम जोखिम और पैमाने की अर्थव्यवस्थाओं के कारण कम लेनदेन लागत।
उप प्रश्न
91. निम्नलिखित में से कौन म्यूचुअल फंड द्वारा सेबी के नियमों के अनुपालन की निगरानी करता है?
1. प्रायोजक
2. ट्रस्टी
3. एएमसी
4. संरक्षक
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Explanation: The trustees are vested with the general power of superintendence and direction over AMC. They monitor the performance and compliance of SEBI Regulations by the mutual fund. ©navclasses
92.The sponsor of a mutual fund is similar to
Options:
1. Sole proprietor of a firm
2. Partner of a partnership firm
3. Promoter of a company
4. Director of a company
92.म्युचुअल फंड का प्रायोजक समान होता है
1. एक फर्म का एकमात्र मालिक
2. साझेदारी फर्म का भागीदार
3. एक कंपनी के प्रमोटर
4. एक कंपनी के निदेशक
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Explanation: A sponsor is similar to a promoter of a company. The sponsor of a Mutual Fund appoints / sets up the board of trustees, the asset management company or fund house and appoints the custodian. Board of trustees – The role of the trustees is to ensure that the interests of Mutual Fund holders are protected. ©navclasses
93.AMC manages funds by investing in
Options:
1. Stock market securities only
2. Credit instruments only
3. Government bonds only
4. Various types of securities
93.AMC में निवेश करके धन का प्रबंधन करता है
1. केवल शेयर बाजार की प्रतिभूतियां
2. केवल ऋण लिखत
3. केवल सरकारी बांड
4. विभिन्न प्रकार की प्रतिभूतियां
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Explanation: Asset management companies (AMCs) are enterprises that pool investments from a variety of individuals and institutions. The corporation invests in capital assets such as stocks, real estate, bonds, and so on to manage the investment. ©navclasses
94.Which among the following is not a part of mutual fund trust?
Options:
1. Sponsor
2. Custodian
3. Depository
4. Trustees
94.निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा म्यूचुअल फंड ट्रस्ट का हिस्सा नहीं है?
1. प्रायोजक
2. संरक्षक
3. डिपॉजिटरी
4. न्यासी
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Explanation: Depository does not come in picture of mutual fund. ©navclasses
95.Mutual fund is
options:
1. Investment intermediary
2. Venture capitalist
3. NBFC
4. Non-profit organization
95.म्यूचुअल फंड है
1. निवेश मध्यस्थ
2. वेंचर कैपिटलिस्ट
3. एनबीएफसी
4. गैर-लाभकारी संगठन
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Explanation: A mutual fund is a professionally managed open-end investment vehicle that pools money from a number of investors to buy securities. ©navclasses
196 marks mam ???
Main quiz Aaj bahut jyada Achcha tha mam please commerce ki Sabhi last year K pyq kara do Taki Hamare concert Aur Bhi Jyada se Kaliyar Ho uski
Thanku so much mam…..???
#navlearner #navclasses #jrfismine
Mam aj aapna quiz main 95 question hi diya hai…..but mana baki ka 5 question or karka score share kiya hai